I have had tinnitus (and Musical Ear Syndrome) for about 2 years now. I believe it was triggered by a medication I took briefly (Nortriptyline), but I can't prove that.
My tinnitus is reactive in nature - it is only brought on after some sound exposure.
Sometimes when I wake up in the morning, I can barely hear it at all, especially if I had a quiet, deep sleep.
However, when my tinnitus kicks in, after even mild sound exposure, it is a pulsatile tinnitus primarily in my left ear. Once it does reappear, it almost always continues for the rest of the day and into the night. If I'm very lucky, it will have reset itself the next morning; if not, it will continue for the next day and indefinitely until I get a protracted bout of silence. Physical activity doesn't really affect it too much.
Based on the above information, is my pulsatile tinnitus still likely to be vascular based, even though it appears to be able to almost (but not quite) go away?
I thought that if its origin is mechanical in nature, it would usually be at nearly the same volume all of the time. Am I wrong in that assumption?
My tinnitus is reactive in nature - it is only brought on after some sound exposure.
Sometimes when I wake up in the morning, I can barely hear it at all, especially if I had a quiet, deep sleep.
However, when my tinnitus kicks in, after even mild sound exposure, it is a pulsatile tinnitus primarily in my left ear. Once it does reappear, it almost always continues for the rest of the day and into the night. If I'm very lucky, it will have reset itself the next morning; if not, it will continue for the next day and indefinitely until I get a protracted bout of silence. Physical activity doesn't really affect it too much.
Based on the above information, is my pulsatile tinnitus still likely to be vascular based, even though it appears to be able to almost (but not quite) go away?
I thought that if its origin is mechanical in nature, it would usually be at nearly the same volume all of the time. Am I wrong in that assumption?