I know audiograms are flawed and hidden hearing loss is a thing, but I'm just curious whether the theory that the problem lies in the brain *independent* of the ear holds water. The way I've heard this described informally is that exposure to loud noise either causes a change in the ear, or a change in the brain itself, wherein even upon cessation of problems in the ear, the brain has internalized a processing disorder. That being said I've never seen experiments showing this, but I'm far from an expert.
To be transparent, I have a personal interest - my tinnitus is pretty atypical based on what I've seen described here - it changes hour to hour, day to day, tonal to atonal and vice versa. I literally cannot tell you what my tinnitus will sound like tomorrow even if I have money riding on it. The only way I've thought this could be explained is something brain-related, since most people seem to have a fairly stable sound for the duration of their experience.
To be transparent, I have a personal interest - my tinnitus is pretty atypical based on what I've seen described here - it changes hour to hour, day to day, tonal to atonal and vice versa. I literally cannot tell you what my tinnitus will sound like tomorrow even if I have money riding on it. The only way I've thought this could be explained is something brain-related, since most people seem to have a fairly stable sound for the duration of their experience.