I'm reading here and in other blogs that PT it is mostly from vascular reasons, but recently I was told that there are instead a lot of cases with no evident vascular reason, pointing to different cause.
Do we need to think that at least 30%-40% of PT are not from vascular origin? If this is correct (it is?) we can maybe better understand the nature of this ugly illness and hopefully find a cure...
Do we need to think that at least 30%-40% of PT are not from vascular origin? If this is correct (it is?) we can maybe better understand the nature of this ugly illness and hopefully find a cure...