I have a somewhat granular question that you may know the answer to.
I wonder, when they compared the 4 cohorts across time periods, I would imagine (and I think you've mentioned this before) that the time was after their last dose. So "30 days" is really Day 37, 44, 58 for the dosing cohorts 1x, 2x, and 4x, respectively. In this way, one is comparing apples to apples, or so they thought.
However, now there's this overdosing business. I wonder what actual day the placebo data was compared to. It seems like "30 days" for the placebo group should correspond with Day 30, but it could also be day 58 if we count time as after the last placebo injection.
Anyways, here's my thought. There's a boatload of post hoc analysis they can do on this lawn effect and overdosing stuff. I don't really understand why the 4x group did the worst. If time measurements started for them after the last dose, wouldn't they have the advantage of no lawn effect (only treatment group, since the last shot was the drug)?
Is their hypothesis basically that the drug shots caused the lawn effect, but not the placebo shots? So 1x performed the best because the drug settled and then was never disrupted by the placebo shots? Doesn't that damage the theory that it was from the injections themselves (i.e. trauma or perilymph overflow)? I would think if it was the injections themselves, the 4x group would perform the best.
BTW, I'm not sold on any of it, I'm just trying to understand.